Isn’t it bad grammar to say cats and blind?
Trying to tell someone a translation is wrong. Not only is the Greek word an adjective they way it is written is bad grammar. It is written “fools and blind” correct grammar would be “blind fools” just as it would be “blind cats”. Let alone the Greek word as I said is an adjective and so should be translated “Foolish and blind” later the same word in the same book is correctly translated as “foolish”.
- I think it's called figurative language01
- I'm afraid I can't make out what you're asking. It is certainly not 'bad grammar' to use the words 'cats' and 'blind'.
You'll have to give us more context, but your own lack of punctuation is making the whole thing much harder to understand.
Why not give us the original Greek phrase?
EDIT to add: OK, thanks, I would translate this as 'the foolish and the blind', or 'fools and the blind'.20
- μωροὶ καὶ τυφλοί,
A few translations say "foolish and blind" others say "fools and blind". Fool is a noun whereas foolish is an adjective. The Greek is specific adjective and adjective. So to write noun and adjective I think is wrong.
Sorry for my punctuation. I am foolish.00
- Given your poor examples, I would say it is more French than Greek, we all know the French say everything backwards!!!!10
- In many languages the adjective almost always comes after the noun, thus, for instance, in French "des chats aveugles" means "some blind cats".
Indeed it is unlikely in normal English to have to say "Those animals are cats, and blind" or "those people are fools, and blind" Without knowing the full context I cannot comment further.00
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